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Q: I just finished reading the appendix to The Lord of The Rings, and I found something that really confuses me. I remember it stating in one of the appendixes that Thranduil, Legolas' father, was one of the Sindar folk of Elves, and also it states that the Sindar folk were of dark hair. Though in The Hobbit, the Elvenking, or Thranduil, had a crown upon his golden hair. Since when in Tolkien's books has the color gold been dark? But if Thranduil is of a certain kind of elf, you'd think Legolas would be the same, but not in this case. In the Fellowship of The Ring, in the chapter "The Ring goes South," Legolas himself says outside of Hollin that "But the Elves of this land were of a race strange to us of the Silvan folk." Now why on earth would he say that if he was Sindarin and not Silvan? Yeah, the Silvan and the Sindarin are brethren kin and the Sindarin follow the Silvan, but typically they both still may have their own opinions on things, so the Silvan may think the elves of Hollin queer, but the Sindarin may think them wise and intelligent (probably didn't, but it's just an example). Though the whole point in writing this is what race is Legolas really? If any body can find out, please tell me.


A: Silvan refers to Wood-Elves (simply meaning the Elves of Mirkwood, at least at the time of Lord of the Rings) while Sindar refers to the race of Elves that had never been in Valinor. Remember that the Elves of Hollin were largely Noldor and had indeed seen the light of the Two Trees, therefore they were estranged from the Sindar and the Silvan who were their descendants and contemporaries.

As far as hair color… I’ve been stumped about that myself. The Hobbit does indeed describe Thranduil as having golden hair, but I’ve been so far unable (at least in my quick search) to find a reference to Legolas’ hair color. However, it would be hasty, as my friend Quickbeam says, to assume too much about the various physical characteristics of any branch of the Elven lines–Arwen is described in the book as having dark hair, and she is from one of the noblest lines of the Eldar, while Glorfindel, also of great power and heritage, is golden-haired. So who can really say?


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Q: I know that Finrod or some other ancient Elven king fought with Morgoth and wounded him so deeply that it never stopped hurting (even though the Elf died), and I was wondering if it would be possible for an Elf to kill or hurt Sauron in the same way? I was wondering why no one ever tried to engage Sauron in hand to hand combat after the Last Alliance when Isildur "wrestled" with him. Isildur and Gil-galad fought him to a draw (everyone died).... If one man and an Elf king could do it, shouldn't two wizards (Gandalf/Radagast) and some powerful Elves like Glorfindel and Galadriel be able to defeat him? Had he grown that much more powerful in the time it took for his "shadow to return" after the Last Alliance? Also, did Gandalf ever attack Sauron?  I seem to remember something about the Necromancer fleeing from Dol Guldur when Gandalf came?

–Charlie Tinor

A: Sauron protected himself very well. No warrior nor even a formidable army of warriors found it easy to approach him. He had lots of armies, lots of fortifications, poison ash and burning lava all around, and many other horrors of Mordor that would scare anyone off before even dreaming of confront him. Such is the way of a classic dictator. For one thing, it was a singular moment, an "impossible to believe" moment, that after losing the Battle of Dagorlad Sauron would appear in person. The Elves and Men besieged the Dark Tower for nearly seven years before forcing Sauron to come out! Ultimately the question is not: "could someone be strong enough to challenge him" but rather "could someone survive the ordeal of getting at him at all." And that answer is no – at least not during the Third Age while the Ring still existed. Think about this a little further and you will see what a miracle it is that Sam and Frodo got as far as they did, penetrating the defenses of Sauron’s land, finding a way in as only quiet little hobbit feet could. It was always the most brilliant aspect of Elrond’s and Gandalf’s plan, that secrecy and a small number of travelers would be the winning ticket.

The White Council knew that Sauron could not be full-on attacked and defeated in any way, not with the Ring still unaccounted for. Remember, IT still existed; and Sauron therefore still held incredible strength both tactical and metaphysical. And the Order of Istari were forbidden to match "power with power" against the Dark Lord. Gandalf’s job was to guide and counsel others, not bring his own might against such an impossible foe.


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Q: Hi, nice section you've got here =), very helpful, but so far I haven't seen any answer for this one question: whatever happened to Níniel? In Silmarillion, it is quoted that "nor was it ever known whither the cold waters of Taiglin had taken her." And I read somewhere in Peoples of Middle-earth (a small side note) that the Valar took pity upon the children of Húrin; could anyone elaborate? Please?


A: I am not sure I understand the question. Níniel committed suicide and threw herself into Taiglin. Her body was never recovered. In one version found in "The War of the Jewels" (Grey Annals, Note 1), an added detail says "mayhap Celebros bore it to Taiglin (sic) and Taiglin to the Sea."

I cannot find the quote from Peoples of Middle-earth; please cite a more specific reference if you wish for an interpretation of a passage.


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Q: Gandalf deems himself to be trapped upon the pinnacle of Orthanc, and we presume he is trapped because he does not believe he could survive a fall from that height were he to jump off.  Did he not understand his immortality as an Istari? Yet, he survives the fall off the bridge of the Khazad-dûm.  How does he survive it? 


A: This goes hand in hand with the answer elsewhere on this page about the rules governing Gandalf’s existence. The answer is his body did not survive the fight with the Balrog, fall or otherwise. Yes, his spirit is immortal, but if he had flung his body off the tower of Orthanc, essentially attempting to defy the natural rules he had set himself up to guard (unlike Sauron), the body would have been killed and his spirit houseless. For all he knew, he had to attempt to escape as a mortal would, helped of course by his special power. The body did not survive the Battle of the Peak, and he was given special license, you might say, to return into the body and into Middle-earth. As for the fall, it says that at the bottom of the chasm was water. We could debate the physics of it all day long, but I’m willing to take it on faith that the body survived the fall, if not the ensuing fight. In the case of Orthanc, Gandalf undoubtedly knew that his spirit would live on, but that if his body perished, he would not necessarily be able to continue his task. Only through the grace of the Valar is that permitted later on.


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Q: When the Rings of Power were forged, Sauron had a hand in the making of all but the Three Rings for the Elves.  What would have happened if Sauron had perverted the Elven Rings the way he did the Nine?  Could elves become wraiths?  The wraiths are neither living nor dead, but I thought elves had to be living, unless they were in the Halls of Mandos?  Also, if one such Elven wraith were to be killed, such as the Witch-king was killed by Merry & Éowyn, what would happen to its soul?  Would it die, the way the Ringwraiths did, having become an entirely different creature, or would it return to Mandos?  This seems kind of strange to imagine, such a perverted elf, one that has been twisted into an evil, horrifying creature living in Aman, but then again, isn't it said by Tolkien that the fates of the Children of Ilúvatar cannot be changed?  That Elves MUST be bound to Arda, and Men MUST one day leave it?  Since there is no real death for Elves, this really intrigues me.  I know it's probably a pointless "what if" line of questioning, since none of this ever happened, but I'd really like to know what you think. 



A: You have answered your own question, while raising a few others. The ultimate fate of the First Born of Ilúvatar could not be changed. Had there been a situation with Sauron poisoning the Three Rings, then I doubt that any drastic change to the physical shell of an Elf would alter where his soul would go after his "death." You can also count out the great Elven Kingdoms existing through the Third Age (at least as we know of them). If you’re thinking about wraith-elves I don’t know if it works quite like that. The life-span of a Man could be extended artificially by a Ring of power, but why would that be necessary for an already immortal Elf? Sauron probably would have wielded his own power directly through the bearers of the Three "corrupted" Rings, regardless of their changed physical form.... and in the end they all would have perished upon the One being destroyed. And when an Elf perishes, off he goes to the Halls of Mandos, no matter what.


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Q: Dwarves and Elves do not get along very well. It would be nice to hear your opinion on why this is so. They have a long and complex story, and much happened that can explain why they don't get along. But still I think some pieces are missing. I know the Elves called them Naugrim, which wasn't very nice. And I know the Dwarves killed Thingol to try to lay their hands on the Silmaril. But they've also fought many battles side by side many times. Is there anything more that hints on why they do not get along?

–Daniel Flöijer


Q: Hi! I have a question about the Elves and Dwarves conflict. You know how the Elves of Lothlórien were rather hesitant about letting Gimli in? Well, why wasn't Elrond like that? Elrond let Gimli and many of his relatives into Rivendell in Fellowship. And in The Hobbit, Elrond let even more Dwarves in. So why were the Lothlórien Elves so hesitant with the Dwarves, and Elrond not at all?


A: As Sam said, "I reckon there's Elves and Elves." The Noldor (including Galadriel) were more sympathetic to the Dwarves and their love of making things than the other kindreds. Indeed, we may suppose that Silvan elves disliked Dwarves for their habit of chopping trees for wood (as suggested in the tale of Aulë and Yavanna). Some of the Elves, like Elrond and Galadriel, were more far-sighted than others, and "perceived from the beginning that Middle-earth could not be saved ... save by a union of all the people who were in their way and in their measure opposed to him." (Unfinished Tales, referring to Galadriel). Thranduil was of Doriath, and Celeborn was "a kinsman of Thingol." In The Hobbit, Thranduil's dislike of the dwarves is specifically related to the events in Doriath; and "Celeborn had no liking for Dwarves of any Race ... and never forgave them for their part in the destruction of Doriath" (Unfinished Tales).


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Q: When Bilbo puts on the One Ring, why doesn't he have sharper hearing and why doesn't the world become blurry to him?  It does to Sam and Frodo.



A: Again we have a case of a sharp distinction between book and movie. The blurred vision and sharper hearing are products of Peter Jackson’s visual effects department. As for Tolkien, well, it is stated in several places that hearing did sharpen and the waking world became grey and dim, but remember, Bilbo gave up possession of the Ring many years before the events of the War even came close to fruition. Sauron was barely back in form when Bilbo found the Ring, and the Nine were not yet abroad. As evil power grew in the land, so did the power of the Ring to take its wearer into the spiritual realm of the wraiths. To Bilbo, for the majority of the time that he was in possession of the Ring, it was just a neat trick he could use to make himself invisible. It was only later in his possession, as Sauron was growing, that the Ring began having other effects –‘growing on his mind,’ and that.


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Q: Did Tolkien ever elaborate on what happened to the non-Noldor Elves that remained in Middle-earth after the Third Age? That is, Thranduil's kin and (presumably) other Silvan Elves. Did they too like Legolas eventually "get the urge" to sail West and leave Middle-earth? And if so, were the Grey Havens kept operating for Elves that wanted to leave Middle-earth in the Fourth Age and after?


A: Tolkien does not specifically elaborate on what happened to the Sindar and the Moriquendi, even though I believe the remaining Elves were to go to the Undying Lands, even though it might take centuries. Ostadan tells me that "Everyone got the invite but not all of them accepted." Which is to say the Straight Road was open for Elves to travel, but would they all answer the call? The Grey Havens stopped operating sometime in the Fourth Age, but that would not stop an Elf from doing anything necessary to sail the Straight Road, should he be so inclined.

I have already elaborated on the themes and subtext of why the Elves would linger so long in Middle-earth. From a story point of view, there is nothing conclusive Tolkien wrote saying, "on this date they all packed up and left." He also doesn’t explain what ultimately happened to the rest of the dragons. There are a few other "dusty corners" of the story he also deliberately leaves open. Within the context of the story, as we read it, it all comes from the Red Book of Westmarch, which was a history established by Bilbo and written to encompass a finite period of time. Of course there will be some unresolved details from this one source book because it is not meant to be exhaustive.


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Q: Hey I'm just curious about the name Elfhelm, and the significance if any there might be concerning it. It just seems strange for one of the Rohirrim to incorporate the word "elf" into one of their own names. Am I looking to deeply into this or what? Elfhelm is just one of those characters as you read through the trilogy that kind of strikes you, and you only hear bits and pieces about him.

–Lance Hite

A: No, it's just a name, like "Aelfwine" (elf-friend), whence come names like Elwin and Alvin in modern English. If it's good enough for the Angles and Saxons, it should be good enough for the Rohirrim, who at least had some knowledge of real elves (and their helms).


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Q: If both Sauron and Gandalf are/were Maia, why does Sauron seem to have immortality (his spirit just running off whenever his physical body is killed) and Gandalf must be allowed to return (or whatever it was that happened to him after the whole Balrog affair)?

–Cameron Harrison

A: I think the primary difference here lies in their modes of existence and the purpose of their being. Sauron chose of his own volition to take shape and dwell in Middle-earth, for purpose of dominion. As such he was, at first, not restricted in shape or movements. Gandalf, on the other hand, was chosen for a mission, and only under specific restraint could he fulfill it. We have seen many times that though he was directly involved, he was not allowed to match power for power, and that his primary involvement was to motivate and "kindle the hearts of" others. For this reason, he lived among mortals, thinly disguised as one of them and nominally under the same rules. Also remember that Sauron wasn’t exactly killed. Silmarillion says he was "thrown down," and that Isildur cut the Ring from his hand, and that Sauron "was for that time vanquished, and he forsook his body, and his spirit fled far away and hid in waste places; and he took no visible shape again for many long years." This tells me Sauron had the initiative, that he moved at will from body to spirit, while Gandalf was in essence, at least at first, bound to the same rules as Men or Elves: if you want to accomplish anything, stay in your body.


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Q: When Frodo and Sam are crossing the Morgai and they feel exhausted with no hope left in them, Sam looks up as the sky is clearing over Mordor after the defeat of Sauron's armies in Gondor, as he is looking up he sees a star and feels hope and strength return to him.  Is this Eärendil?  I only ask because it is said in The Silmarillion that Eärendil is meant to sail the heavens with the Silmaril and that the light that comes from it shall be seen as a star in Middle-earth and give its inhabitants hope.  I just ask because it sounds cool, don't you think?


–Angus McCracken

A: Yes indeed, most people accept that was Eärendil (who corresponds to Venus in our sky). We don’t know for sure what Sam saw, but the true point of the scene is that he was inspired by the beauty of the stars as the Elves were when they first awoke by the waters of Cuiviénen.


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Q: Almost everyone knows that Legolas' father was the king of Mirkwood, Thranduil. But does anyone know who Legolas' mom was? Are there any hints in Tolkien's text that relate to this topic?


A: Nope, not a clue. We do not even know whether Thranduil had taken a wife in Beleriand, or whether his wife was a Silvan elf of Mirkwood. Here is a good space for well-written fan fiction.


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Q: At the end of The Return Of The King it states that three times Lórien had been assailed by the forces of Dol Guldur and three times they had been driven back due to the valour of the Elves but more importantly Galadriel's use of Nenya, the Elven ring. And that once Sauron had been defeated the elves crossed Anduin and defeated the forces of Dol Guldur and Galadriel threw down its walls and cleansed the forest. My question is if Sauron had already been defeated would the Elven Rings not have already been shorn of their power and so how did Galadriel manage to destroy Dol Guldur and cleanse Mirkwood without the power of her ring? Would her power as one of the greatest of the Eldar been enough? Also after the death of Gil-Galad would Galadriel not have been next in line to The Noldor Throne in Middle-earth since she was the last descendant of Finwë in Middle-earth?


A: Tolkien is always very careful to say two clear things about the Elven rings, no matter what else he may leave ambiguous: 1) that Sauron never touched or sullied the Three, so that they are not under his direct control, and 2) that when the One is destroyed, the Elves aren’t quite sure what will actually happen to the Three, but think that their power will fade. Fade and diminish are two words Tolkien uses very carefully in several places, and both of them seem to imply a gradual weakening. That is, the mystical wards of Lórien and Rivendell would not just vanish with a bang when the One was destroyed–a crack would form, perhaps, here and there, the spells laid on the realms would become thinner–but I have no trouble believing that the ring, and Galadriel, still retained enough juice in the days immediately following the One’s destruction to throw down the walls of Dol Guldur and drive out whatever other evil was living there, especially once the One was no longer the motivating will in the evil ranks.


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Q: I know that Elrond is Arwen's father and Galadriel is her grandmother, but I have never found any mention of her mother.  Why is this?  Who was she, and did she die?  If so, how?


A: Arwen is the daughter of Elrond and Celebrían, and Celebrían is Galadriel’s daughter. She has only two mentions in Lord of the Rings. In the chapter "Farewell to Lórien," Galadriel says: `This stone I gave to Celebrían my daughter, and she to hers; and now it comes to you as a token of hope. In this hour take the name that was foretold for you, Elessar, the Elfstone of the house of Elendil!’ speaking of the Elfstone that was passed from Galadriel to Celebrían to Arwen, who then left it with Galadriel to be given to Aragorn. Her fate is mentioned in "Many Meetings:" ‘But her brothers, Elladan and Elrohir, were out upon errantry: for they rode often far afield with the Rangers of the North, forgetting never their mother's torment in the dens of the orcs.’ The "Tale of Years" states that in 2509, "Celebrían, journeying to Lórien, is waylaid in the Redhorn Pass, and receives a poisoned wound." In 2510, "Celebrían departs over Sea."


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WARNING!! SPOILER for any new readers who have not read Return of the King! Do not read this Q&A item if you do not wish to know the ultimate fate of the Ring at the end of the Quest. J

Q: The question I have is this: The One Ring is reported to be very powerful with not only physical but mental powers. Even poor Frodo on Mount Doom is forced despite himself to put the Ring on. Why then can the Ring not prevent Gollum from falling and destroying it?

–Sherna Engineer


Q:After the Ring is destroyed in the Cracks of Doom Frodo says, speaking of Gollum, "But for him I could not have destroyed the Ring." My question is to what extent can Frodo make this claim?

To my mind, this statement seems to imply that he used Gollum as a proxy to destroy the Ring, and indeed Gollum's demise is twice foretold by Frodo–in The Two Towers (p308) he says, "If I, wearing it, were to command you, you would obey, even if it were to leap from a precipice or to cast yourself into the fire." And in The Return of the King, when Gollum attacks him and Sam on the slopes of Mount Doom, this is echoed when Frodo says, "If you touch me ever again you shall be cast yourself into the Fire of Doom."

Conversely, if Frodo did not have such a direct role in the destruction of the Ring, there are only two other views (that I can see) for Gollum falling into the Cracks of Doom – random chance or an act of God. I'm not sure which one of these three explanations I subscribe to, and I think Tolkien deliberately left it open to interpretation, but I'd welcome your views on the matter.


A: The first question is about the Ring’s ability to overpower an individual. You could say it was a function of the Ring to bring anyone who held it (or would wield it) closer to the will of Sauron. Sort of "attuning" them to Sauron’s ultimate will, and of course using them as pawns to find any possible way to get back to its Master. The Ring could not solely control the physical behavior of a person, that’s something else entirely. It could not force its will on Gollum to stop him from jumping wildly in ecstasy any more than it could force Frodo to turn around and walk down Sauron’s Road to go knocking on the front door of the Dark Tower.

Now when you speak about Frodo’s failure as Ringbearer you get into the same area Tolkien himself considered and wrote about in 1956, in a letter to Mr. Michael Straight (see Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien, No. 181). If you do not have a copy of this book you absolutely must get one. Here Tolkien explains that Frodo did NOT use Gollum as a proxy nor did he write a scenario of randomness that falls under "deus ex machina." In summary, Tolkien said:

The final scene of the Quest was so shaped simply because having regard to the situation, and to the ‘characters’ of Frodo, Sam, and Gollum, those events seemed to me mechanically, morally, and psychologically credible.

He goes on to say the entire final ‘catastrophe’ marked a point where Frodo was rewarded for his continual forgiveness and pity of Gollum. Frodo had the chance but did not kill Gollum, even after being betrayed to Shelob and attacked again on Mt. Doom, he pitied him and let him go free. This was the most important aspect of Frodo’s failure as Ringbearer. Even though he failed ‘as far as Frodo considered alone was concerned,’ Tolkien also says:

But at this point the ‘salvation’ of the world and Frodo’s own ‘salvation’ is achieved by his previous pity and forgiveness of injury.... [Gollum’s] last betrayal was at a precise juncture when the final evil deed was the most beneficial thing anyone could have done for Frodo! By a situation created by his ‘forgiveness,’ he was saved himself, and relieved of his burden.

In a fuller context, the Professor wanted this scene to be a dynamic way of ‘exemplifying’ the most famous line from the Lord’s Prayer: "Forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those that trespass against us. Lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil." You can see how profoundly Tolkien’s beliefs are present in the story, and with what skill the author shows us the deeper points of meaning. Please refer to Letter 181 for a complete discussion.


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Q: Who wrote the LotR couplet "Three rings for Elven-kings...."? Was it Sauron? Because Sauron would have had to either know it or write it in order to put it on the One Ring. But, if he didn't write it, then who did? They would have had to have seen the lines on the One Ring, which means either a close-up of the Ring itself or a look at Isildur’s scroll. Please help me clear this up! Great site!


A: The author of the whole Ring-verse is never named. However, the "One Ring" couplet was spoken and written by Sauron in the Black Speech. At the Council of Elrond, speaking of Isildur's description of the ring, Gandalf said, "...what was said therein was already known. For in the day that Sauron first put on the One, Celebrimbor, maker of the Three, was aware of him, and from afar he heard him speak these words..." and again, "Out of the Black Years come the words that the Smiths of Eregion heard, and knew that they had been betrayed." It is not clear whether they were spoken (as written) in Black Speech or some other tongue...nor indeed, whether the telepathic perception of Celebrimbor makes the question meaningless.

We can reasonably suppose that the remainder of the Ring-verse was written years later, after the Seven and the Nine had been bestowed upon Dwarves and Men.


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Q: I am not sure where the passages are, but it says in The Silmarillion that when the Valar and the Maiar went into the world, that Ilúvatar made the condition that they would have to stay within it until it was complete.  Now, in "The Scouring of the Shire," Wormtongue goes and cuts Saruman's throat, and he loses his body, right?  It says that there was a form or something (I don't have the book right in front of me) over his body, and it turned towards the West, but then a wind came up and blew it away.  I suppose looking to the West was like looking towards Valinor, and that he was rejected or something like that for the things he had done.  So, what happened to him after that?  Was he powerful enough like Sauron to take on another form after a while?  Any insight would be appreciated.


A: Saruman’s existence was governed by the same rules as Gandalf’s, and so no, I don’t believe that without special consideration from the Valar Saruman could ever have taken form in Middle-earth again. However, Middle-earth is not the whole world. Valinor is also a part of the "circles of the world," however far removed it may be from Middle-earth. The West rejected the spirit of Saruman, but the spirit would have remained within the world. Where? I cannot say.


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Q: One thing I've never been clear on is how Elrond and the other Wise originally figure out that the One Ring will be destroyed if thrown into Mount Doom, and also that this is the only way to put an end to it.  After Isildur cuts the Ring from Sauron's hand, Elrond seems certain that this is what should be done with it, but how does he know this?  Is it just something inherent in the wisdom of the Elves?


A: We cannot know all the secrets of Ring-making as the Elves knew them! Maybe Elrond had many conversations with Celebrimbor, where all the secrets were shared between them. Maybe the information was directly "communicated" as soon as Elrond first put Vilya on his finger. After that point maybe Elrond did a thorough job of briefing everyone else on the White Council. I can assume a dozen different things, but Tolkien does not tell us for sure.


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Q: In The Two Towers, Legolas says that "Sauron does not use the Elf-Runes." Why then is the Ring inscription in an ancient form of Elvish? The first thought that comes to mind is that an Elvish inscription might be a way of adding to the magic *against* Elves – but the Ring inscription does not need to be read for the Ring to bring its power to bear against others (Elves, as well as hobbits, men, etc).


A: The Ring inscription is in Elvish letters, not runes; a small distinction, perhaps, but one that was important to Tolkien. And the language was not Elvish – it's like saying that something is in Roman letters, even when it isn't in Latin. Clearly, Sauron's forces must have used some form of writing in sending messages, but there are many forms of writing – Elvish letters, Dwarvish runes, Elvish runes...or perhaps runes or other letters of Sauron's own devising, nowhere recorded. All we know is that he did not use the runic alphabet the same way as the Elves did.


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Q: My question is simply about Sauron's name. In "Of the Rings of Power and the Third Age" it is said that "Of old there was Sauron the Maia" and that he was with Aulë the Smith. The name Sauron translates as "The Abhorred." Question then: did Sauron have another name before he joined with Morgoth, especially when he was with Aulë? As far as I know, no earlier name is given, but as a Maia for Aulë, the name Sauron makes no sense.

–Paul van Vliet

A: Sauron's Valineorean name is not given, but we should mention Note 7 in the History of Galadriel and Celeborn (in Unfinished Tales), which mentions that the identity as "Sauron" (Morgoth's Lieutenant) was not known until the One Ring was forged, and that among the Noldor he used names like Artano ("high-smith") or Aulendil ("devoted to Aule") as well as Annatar, "Lord of Gifts" as mentioned in "Of the Rings of Power".

In a sense, the question is meaningless. Since Sauron was corrupted by Morgoth at the beginning of Arda, the Elves never met him in his "unfallen" state. Remember, all of the names of the Valar and Maiar are Elvish names, not their "true" names in the language of the Valar themselves. So it may be that the Elves simply had no name for Sauron besides those we know.


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Questions 04/02
Quick navigation for questions asked this month.
 • Is Legolas really Sindarin?
 • Why not attack Sauron directly?
 • What happened to Niniel?
 • Could Gandalf survive the fall?
 • Corrupted Three Rings?
 • Fued between Elves and Dwarves
 • Does the Ring also affect Bilbo?
 • Did the other Elves leave?
 • Is Elfhelm a true Rohirric name?
 • Why is Gandalf not immortal?
 • Was that Earendil in the sky?
 • Who was Legolas' mother?
 • How did Galadriel use her Ring?
 • Did Frodo fail as Ringbearer?
 • Who was Arwen's mother?
 • Who wrote the Ring-verse?
 • How did they know to destroy the Ring?
 • Would Saruman return again?
 • Why Elf letters on the Ring?
 • Sauron's name in Valinor?


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